Does the Bible consider women as the property of their fathers or husbands?

We live in an age of such sexual equality that perhaps we tend to read into the bible our pre-conceptions. Less than 100 years ago women were not able to vote and slightly further back were not allowed to own property. in their name unless widowed or orphaned. So looking back 2000 years ago and assuming the Bible was propounding sexual equality or women's liberation seems a strange extrapolation. In the 10 commandment we were forbidden to covet the neighbors house, slave, ***, wife or anything belonging to him. I read this as saying the wife and presumably also daughters belonged to the male head of the house. If I am wrong can you explain why?